Hello -
Hoping for some insight regarding an ongoing issue we're dealing with.
Scenario :
Subsidiary 1, based in United Arab Emirates, transacts in UAE, rolls up to Consolidated Parent in USD
Subsidiary 2, based in Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, transacts in SAR, rolls up to Consolidated Parent in USD
Subsidiary 1's currency revaluations land in Unrealized Gains and Losses as expected.
Subsidiary 2 does not utilize their own bank account, as we are still finalizing the authorized signer, and their currency revaluations are landing in Realized Gains and Losses.
- Confirming that this is expected system behavior, as Unrealized should related to any open transactions, and Realized relates to exchange rates upon closure of payment
- As this is the only known difference between how the two are transacting, the lack of KSA/SAR Sub using their own bank account, inquiring if anyone may be aware of any other reason beyond this factor that would cause their CTA to hit Realized vs Unrealized that we should investigate.
- If our understanding is accurate, and both scenarios are expected system behavior and not using their own banking would be the cause, inquiring if there is any recommended solution or work-around to realign the CTA in question to Unrealized as applicable while we continue to wait for their banking set up to be finalized.
Thanks in advance!
