Incorrect On-hand in B2B buy flow. Clarification Requested. Is this standard behaviour?
We have the following Scenario
We have 2 subinventories with On hand of 10 Each Not tied to any demand hence the ATT =ATR= On Hand=10. Please find Screenshot below for reference
Now we Create a B2B Buy sales Order, with a demand of 30 and receive the PO and put away equally into each subinventory. Hence Each Sub inventory has an On hand of 25 now. However since B2B has done reservation automatically against the PO , we expected that at Subinvenory level the On hand should show as 25 with ATT and ATR as 10 Each (15 being allocated to the Original demand of 30).