Change Cost to 0.00 after asset was created manually with a cost in error.
I wondering if anyone knows if taking an asset that was created manually in one fiscal with a cost and thus has depreciation and accumulated amortization against it.
IF the cost was reduced manually to 0.00 would this be an issue? Is it something not done this way?
The asset was created in error and should not have been. I think FA allows this but want to make sure it would work as opposed to doing a write off and then getting
a loss on the 'not' real asset.
Thanks
PN.