IPV process revalues asset cost when invoice does not have a variance

Hello everyone,

I was hoping someone has come across this issue and can help us out.

We're in the process of testing the Invoice Price Variance for all our International orgs.  During testing we noticed when IPV retrieved the invoice variance to transfer to asset, during the transfer process, it was was not converting the invoice variance amount to the functional currency of the org.  Oracle supplied us with a patch which corrected the issue.

During the patch testing, we then discovered a scenario where the IPV process revalues the original asset cost even though there is no invoice variance.  It is using the invoice currency rate to revalue the original asset cost.  Is this behavior normal (standard) functionality?