Fixed Asset Conversion - Inception to Date Depreciation Expense?
When converting fixed assets from a legacy system, and after entering the Beginning Balances for Cost (F1202 Account Type 1)/Accumulated Depreciation (F1202 Account Type 2) of an asset, will Depreciation (F1202 Account Type 4) represent the inception to date depreciation expense?
OR, will it always represent depreciation that was calculated by E1 since the conversion?
Thank you.