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How is it possible to ship an item without adding the uom to intraclass configuration setup?

edited Sep 12, 2023 4:38PM in Inventory Management 11 comments

Summary:

Dear Team,

The case at hand is that during UAT, we found a user being able to ship an Item with UOM 'X'; however, this UOM is not configured in the intraclass configuration setup. How does the system know the conversion between UOM 'X' and the PUOM to calculate the onhand decrease upon shipping that sales order?

Why would the system allow such transaction? (I would understand that this UOM will be accepted in order management because it would be added in the price list, but from a UOM conversion point of view, it should not work. If anything, the addition of a UOM in the price list should be contingent on the conversion rates setup in intraclass. At least, that's what I think makes sense)

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